Submitted 8 months ago by fossilesque@mander.xyz to science_memes@mander.xyz
https://mander.xyz/pictrs/image/01bd60ca-3722-4672-88e6-ecfc3c2bcc2e.png
tbf, the 2nd sum is exactly the first one just multiplied by 1/2. though i get that the progression is natural, even, and odd.
the last one is definitely odd puzzling, but i cannot intuitively get the first one. how does summing the inverse of triangular number equal 2?
I believe starting with 1/1 which equals 1, you are then adding infinitely (fractions) on top of the 1. So 1, then 1 1/2, ect, so the next full integer to be hit (infinitely down the line) would be 2.
I don’t do high level math so I hope this explanation is correct or intelligible, this is just how I understand it intuitively
But the first few values are:
1 + 1/3 + 1/6 + 1/10 + 1/15 + 1/21 + 1/28…
I really don’t see any pattern there showing why it converges to 2 exactly
It’s not saying the proof is obvious, just that the result is plausible on its face.
1/(n * (n+1)) = 1/n - 1/(n+1)
1/(12) + 1/(23) + 1/(3*4) + … = 1 - 1/2 + 1/2 - 1/3 + 1/3 - 1/4 + … = 1
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + … = -1/12
Under very special circumstances an argument can be made for this, at least
Not really. The left side comes from trying to evaluate the Reimann zeta function at a point outside its domain, and the right side comes from evaluating the analytic continuation of the zeta function at the same point. The deepest truth it reveals is that applying the definition of a function outside its domain can give you nonsense results.
Never understood those circumstances, but I choose to believe that all even numbers summed are therefore -2/12 and all odd numbers therefore 1/12.
That’s where I assumed it was going.
What’s the big deal? Just solve for …
… = (π^2 / 6) - (1 + 1/4 + 1/9)
Ez
/s
how dare you post math in this sub
Yeah, but is the function for 1 over odd numbers, or 1 over prime numbers …
1 isn’t a prime number
And 2 is.
Tired of waiting 2 seconds for hyperpi to download? Do this instead. Thanks, internet!
MarcomachtKuchen@feddit.org 8 months ago
I’m allways astonished by how many function seemingly have nothing to do with circles and yet somehow a pi managed to snuck itself in
NeatNit@discuss.tchncs.de 8 months ago
Usually when that happens there’s a way to tie it back to circles, but it’s not always easy to find
notabot@lemm.ee 8 months ago
You could say you just go round and round hunting for it, but no matter how hard you try you just can’t corner it.
Well, you could.
xantoxis@lemmy.world 8 months ago
Not necessarily circles, but conic sections. When you take a series of a fixed exponent over a variable x, and graph it, that graph is a parabola.
A parabola is a slice through a cone. Tada, pi appears.
Didros@beehaw.org 8 months ago
It makes sense if you consider that mass without outside forces forms a sphere. If you have enough atoms you get a sphere, and if you only have two they will circle eachother. Two hydrogen atoms are two spheres of neutrons and protons being circled by an electron circling eachother. It’s circles all tge way down.