It’s regulated per state. What Texas is doing, while highly unethical and, frankly, fraudulent, is entirely legal and up to the Texas state legislature to decide. Only the federal government may supersede it and only with a change to the constitution which prescribes this power to the states. So, for the Texas legislature, yes it’s easier to modify the law. To change it without them, it is absolutely not easier.
Comment on F*ck off Arnie, you're out of your element!
flamingo_pinyata@sopuli.xyz 1 day agoSo I went and looked it up
Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons. The actual Enumeration shall be made within three Years after the first Meeting of the Congress of the United States, and within every subsequent Term of ten Years, in such Manner as they shall by Law direct. The Number of Representatives shall not exceed one for every thirty Thousand, but each State shall have at Least one Representative; …
If I’m interpreting this correctly, representatives are proportioned among states based on population. But there is no provision specifying that within a state the election must be based on electoral districts.
And according to Wikipedia
States entitled to more than one representative are divided into single-member districts. This has been a federal statutory requirement since 1967 pursuant to the act titled An Act For the relief of Doctor Ricardo Vallejo Samala and to provide for congressional redistricting.[21] Before that law, general ticket representation was used by some states.
There doesn’t seem to be any constitutional requirements for electoral districts. It’s regulated by a law but not constitution, which should make it easier to modify.
kryptonianCodeMonkey@lemmy.world 1 day ago
CIA_chatbot@lemmy.world 1 day ago
Well, kinda- gerrymandering g itself was illegal until the current Supreme Court (well, the GOP part) decided to gut election laws for Trump
kryptonianCodeMonkey@lemmy.world 1 day ago
No it wasn’t. Gerrymandering that demonstrably targeted racial or other protected demographics or otherwise broke the voting rights act was illegal. But gerrymandering as a concept has never been illegal in the US. State and federal courts, including SCOTUS, have ruled several times that there is no constitutional law against it, nor a mechanism to objectively identify it, nor a means to remedy it. If it violates those other laws in the process, it gets rejected and kicked back to be fixed. But if not, there is nothing illegal about it under current law, despite it being blatant vote manipulation.
ceenote@lemmy.world 1 day ago
It wouldn’t mean much as long as the senate still exists.
protist@mander.xyz 1 day ago
They’re saying the constitution explicitly delegates this power to the states, meaning in order to enact something in this area nationally, it would require a constitutional amendment