Comment on How come in most school in the USA (at least mine) they teach Spain Spanish instead of Mexico Spanish? Would not Mexico Spanish be an obvious choice to teach?

amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone ⁨1⁩ ⁨day⁩ ago

• Noel_Skum@sh.itjust.works ⁨1⁩ ⁨day⁩ ago

  You may want to reread the question as your answer makes zero sense.

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  • amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone ⁨23⁩ ⁨hours⁩ ago

    which part don’t you understand? maybe I can explain

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    • Noel_Skum@sh.itjust.works ⁨23⁩ ⁨hours⁩ ago

      Mainly it’s because not a single human being in Mesoamérica spoke any form of Spanish before, uh, the Spaniards turned-up. (And began committing their genocide)

      The question was asking why Castilian was taught, as opposed to any other dialect/form of Spanish that is spoken in geographically proximous states to the US.

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• daniskarma@lemmy.dbzer0.com ⁨1⁩ ⁨day⁩ ago

  It makes zero sense.

  The indigenous people didn’t talk in Mexican Spanish.

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  • amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone ⁨23⁩ ⁨hours⁩ ago

    I didn’t say they did. Spanish versions from Latin America are still marginalized though because the indigenous peoples heavily influenced the language and the vocabulary, etc. that’s why Spaniards get judgemental when they “correct” Latine people because they view their language as inferior and grammatically incorrect

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    • daniskarma@lemmy.dbzer0.com ⁨23⁩ ⁨hours⁩ ago

      I have never seen a Spaniard correct anyone from Latin America or thinking their language is less correct.

      For your knowledge Spain itself have a lot of dialects in the Peninsula, all of which sound different. And Latin American dialects are influenced by Southern Spain dialects as most colonizers where from there. In the Canary Islands and in some parts of Andalusia they also use “ustedes” as second person.

      I think you just made some scenarios in your head to be angry or something.

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      • amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone ⁨21⁩ ⁨hours⁩ ago

        I just made up the genocide Spain committed in the Americas? lol ok buddy

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