Comment on Female-to-male rape, (how) does it happen without roofies?
CoffeeJunkie@lemmy.cafe 2 months ago
There is one case I know of personally, I don’t think it technically falls under the description of rape but I consider it rape. Husband & wife, wife wanted kid. Husband did not. Their birth control was pill-based oral contraceptive. Wife very purposefully moved off that birth control without telling the husband, husband was just raw-dogging her because “she was on the pill”…lo & behold…she gets pregnant.
She’s not very smart, and she has told a number of people about this deception & laughs about it. HAHAHA, oh, so funny, yeah that’s rape. You took advantage of your husband & used his reproductive abilities against his explicit wishes. You raped your husband. Had yourself a little rape-baby. Hilarious stuff (stupid broad).
Again, I don’t think that’s currently covered under rape. But goddamn I think it should be (although it’s harder to prove without confession/admission).
Illuminostro@lemmy.world 2 months ago
That’s not rape, it’s deception. She willing had sex with him. She deceived him on whether she was on birth control. It’s not the same thing, not even close.
MRA’s are pussies, by the way. The have every advantage, but whine when they actually have to compete. Real men, yessir.
lightnsfw@reddthat.com 2 months ago
Would he have had unprotected sex with her if he knew the truth? If not it’s pretty rapey. What if we’re the other way around and he had slipped the condom off without her knowledge?
Illuminostro@lemmy.world 2 months ago
Still not rape, either scenario. Deception.
lightnsfw@reddthat.com 2 months ago
The only difference between it being forcible rape and it being “deception” is that the victim doesn’t know the real situation. It’s still forcing them to have sex against their will because if they knew the truth they would resist. The dictionary also supports this being rape.