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I know. I’ve studied this extensively. I am specialized in formal logic and by extension set theory. I’ve worked with and help write actual research papers in this field where this is basic knowledge.

I’ve never claimed their to be a bijection between the reals and the natural numbers. Please point out what statement I made that is wrong. I would very much like to know.

Also no you do not have to accept choice for this to be true. ZF is perfectly acceptable to study various infinite sets with differing cardinality.

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thesmokingman@programming.dev ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

That does not make one set more infinite than the other. You cannot be more unending than to literally have no end.

Your use of language is incorrect. But, since you’re clearly the only published expert with any experience in this topic on the internet, it’s really not worth pointing out that we fall on two sides of the standard axiom of choice debate since you already knew that. Have fun!

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- weker01@feddit.de ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago
  My use of language could very well be incorrect. I am not a native English speaker anyways. That’s no reason to be so condescending.
  
  I was just merely stating my credentials to have a basis of discussion but you do not seem to be interested in that.
  
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