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weker01@feddit.de ⁨5⁊ ⁨months⁊ ago

That is the way it is often taught but actually both sets are infinite that is have no ends or in other words are not bounded.

The thing that is confusing to understand is that the question how many there are and how much there is diverges at infinity.

Our intuition (as finite beings) is broken here. Both sets are infinite but in one is more than in the other. That does not make one set more infinite than the other. You cannot be more unending than to literally have no end.

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