Comment on When Britain used torture to control the Strait of Hormuz
deHaga@feddit.uk 22 hours agoLaws literally define what torture is. How could it be enforced otherwise? How could they create coercive techniques that avoided it being torture?
huf@hexbear.net 22 hours ago
no, the word torture has a meaning independent of the laws of the day. it’s been fairly stable for a long time.
also, why do they need to create “coercive techniques” (methods of torture)?