In the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.
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SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world 11 months agoIt’s still not implicit just because you inferred it.
name_NULL111653@pawb.social 11 months ago
SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world 11 months ago
He stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.
TheFriendlyDickhead@lemm.ee 11 months ago
Well the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense
SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world 11 months ago
No, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.