It was explained to me by someone I know who I trust. I would have to ask them or go looking. Unfortunately I haven’t been in contact with them so that’s not much of an option for the foreseeable future. As I said it is my understanding, I was led to believe this isn’t really something to argue about as the were entire books that no longer exist in modern versions. This was any 15 years ago and you are the first person to challenge that assertion I’ve made.
Sorrey if I’m mistaken or was misled
Flax_vert@feddit.uk 4 weeks ago
The assertion I’ve generally heard is that it’s quite close. Like some things are worded differently to the masoretic text which we used before it (although other manuscripts were right anyway) but no doctrine changes.
You hear the likes of Bart Ehrman claim all these things about thousands of textual variants- most of them are simply spelling errors.