Comment on [CW: Slurs/pejoratives, morality] When is it considered immoral if someone is saying something that they know is pejorative and they are not intending it as disparaging towards the original group?
Wasn’t gay “fun” back in the day? As in, “I’m having a gay old time”
Non-native, so don’t know much about the history.
Yes. I never said any different. It was adopted as a descriptor by gay men, not bigots trying to denigrate them.
Oh, my comment was more of an honest followup question about the language, not an attempt to attack the validity of your comment. I Didn’t mean to come across that way.
JoBo@feddit.uk 8 months ago
Yes. I never said any different. It was adopted as a descriptor by gay men, not bigots trying to denigrate them.
Drummyralf@lemmy.world 8 months ago
Oh, my comment was more of an honest followup question about the language, not an attempt to attack the validity of your comment. I Didn’t mean to come across that way.