Comment on Phones have unique phone numbers, why dont computers have unique computer-numbers?

• lemmyng@lemmy.ca ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

  Sure they can. If you put a network behind a router they will share an egress/ingress IP. And there are certain high availability setups where computers share IPs in the same subnet for hot/standby failover.

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  • JesterIzDead@lemm.ee ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

    Yes, but no. The public IP is that of the router, which NATs packets to each host, each of which must have a unique private IP. The public IP does not reference or identity hosts behind the router. And that’s not how HA works. Only one host is assigned the active IP at one time.

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    • lemmyng@lemmy.ca ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

      When you do call routing with a PBX each phone has an unique extension, equivalent to the private IP of each host.

      Oh, and there’s also anycast, which is literally multiple active devices sharing an IP.

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      • JesterIzDead@lemm.ee ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

        You’d have to know more about BGP to know any cast doesn’t function as you think it does

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• IHateReddit@lemmy.world ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

  They can share the same router and therefore have the same public IP.

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  • JesterIzDead@lemm.ee ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

    Yes, but no. The public IP is that of the router, which NATs packets to each host, each of which must have a unique private IP. The public IP does not reference or identity hosts behind the router.

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    • lemmyng@lemmy.ca ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

      A phone number does not uniquely identify a phone either.

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