Basically the assumption is that the signal x(t) is equal to 0 for all t < 0 and that the integral converges. And what is a bit counter-intuitive: Laplace transformations can be regarded as generalizations of Fourier transformations, since the variable s is not only imaginary but fully complex. But yeah… I would have to brush up on it again, before explaining it as well. It’s… been a while.